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steiner1745 Wednesday 24th of August 2005 11:42:35 PM
more questions - Salaam!

More questions on various points from Mace (M)
and Easy Persian (EP):
1). I recently learned the word for questions:
porsesh-haa. How does one say "some questions"?
In my sources I found 3 different words for "some".
Could someone tell me the nuances of these different
words?

2). What is the correct word for "me"? maraa (M)
or man raa (EP)? Or are both correct?

3). What is the difference in meaning of
manzel = house (M) and khane = house (EP)?

4). In the sentence "Hassan went to Tehran."
is the correct version of "to Tehran"
beh Tehran (EP) or b'Tehran (M)?
How about Hassan went to school?
Is it beh madreseh (EP) or b'madreseh (M)?

Lots of questions, but I'm trying to make sense
my sources. No explanations of these sorts
of points are ever given!
Be salaamat,
Ray Steiner

Paul8 Thursday 25th of August 2005 09:54:10 AM
- 1. you would use the indefinite suffix -i alonmg with the plural for of the word so it would be porsesh-haa-'i or پرسشهائی

2. the correct form for is من maen but with the object marker raa را maera is used in speech and منرا maenra is used in text

3. maenzel and xane mean the exact same thing, although they may have different connotations to a persian the major difference is that xane is arabic based (this is more of a very string hunch because of the silent h at the end, which is representative of teh marbuTah in arabic) since I am not persian I would not know if there is a difference in connotation in the words

4. be tehran is the disconnected form for writing and b'tehran is actually pronounced betehran not b'tehran and this is the attached version, they both sound exactly the same the only difference is the connection which makes no difference in writing and it is impossibe to tell in speech.
the same applies for madreseh it is pronounced bemadrese but can be written as بمدرسه or به مدرسه both are correct

steiner1745 Saturday 27th of August 2005 12:10:27 AM
re: more questions - Salaam!
Thank you for all your kind replies.
I have a question about one point:
Paul8, you said the translation of "some questions"
was porseshhayi. I checked several sources and
all said that you add the i(yi) when some means
"any", like any man= some man = mardi.
In my case, some means "several" or "a few".
So, shouldn't the translation be
porseshha ye chand? (Chand= several or a few)?
Mamnun,
Steiner1745

Paul8 Monday 29th of August 2005 11:11:06 AM
- for several 'chaend' is correct however not the way you have used it. you would use chaend as if it was a number, therfore you would say "chaend ta porsesh" "چند تا پرسش"because you never put a word in the plural after any number. so you would say "seh ta porsesh" or "seh porsesh" for "three questions"

and the -i suffix is the indefinite marker so it could mean any man but not some men. some would be the plural indefinite which is why it is -haa-'i

Phrasebase Archive
	steiner1745	Wednesday 24th of August 2005 11:42:35 PM
	more questions - Salaam! More questions on various points from Mace (M) and Easy Persian (EP): 1). I recently learned the word for questions: porsesh-haa. How does one say "some questions"? In my sources I found 3 different words for "some". Could someone tell me the nuances of these different words? 2). What is the correct word for "me"? maraa (M) or man raa (EP)? Or are both correct? 3). What is the difference in meaning of manzel = house (M) and khane = house (EP)? 4). In the sentence "Hassan went to Tehran." is the correct version of "to Tehran" beh Tehran (EP) or b'Tehran (M)? How about Hassan went to school? Is it beh madreseh (EP) or b'madreseh (M)? Lots of questions, but I'm trying to make sense my sources. No explanations of these sorts of points are ever given! Be salaamat, Ray Steiner
	Paul8	Thursday 25th of August 2005 09:54:10 AM
	- 1. you would use the indefinite suffix -i alonmg with the plural for of the word so it would be porsesh-haa-'i or پرسشهائی 2. the correct form for is من maen but with the object marker raa را maera is used in speech and منرا maenra is used in text 3. maenzel and xane mean the exact same thing, although they may have different connotations to a persian the major difference is that xane is arabic based (this is more of a very string hunch because of the silent h at the end, which is representative of teh marbuTah in arabic) since I am not persian I would not know if there is a difference in connotation in the words 4. be tehran is the disconnected form for writing and b'tehran is actually pronounced betehran not b'tehran and this is the attached version, they both sound exactly the same the only difference is the connection which makes no difference in writing and it is impossibe to tell in speech. the same applies for madreseh it is pronounced bemadrese but can be written as بمدرسه or به مدرسه both are correct
	steiner1745	Saturday 27th of August 2005 12:10:27 AM
	re: more questions - Salaam! Thank you for all your kind replies. I have a question about one point: Paul8, you said the translation of "some questions" was porseshhayi. I checked several sources and all said that you add the i(yi) when some means "any", like any man= some man = mardi. In my case, some means "several" or "a few". So, shouldn't the translation be porseshha ye chand? (Chand= several or a few)? Mamnun, Steiner1745
	Paul8	Monday 29th of August 2005 11:11:06 AM
	- for several 'chaend' is correct however not the way you have used it. you would use chaend as if it was a number, therfore you would say "chaend ta porsesh" "چند تا پرسش"because you never put a word in the plural after any number. so you would say "seh ta porsesh" or "seh porsesh" for "three questions" and the -i suffix is the indefinite marker so it could mean any man but not some men. some would be the plural indefinite which is why it is -haa-'i