Farsi Question About Raa-direct Object Marker

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steiner1745 Tuesday 27th of September 2005 11:45:28 PM
question about raa-direct object marker - Salaam!
I am puzzled about the use of "raa" as a direct object
indicator.
One of my sources, "Teach yourself Modern Persian"
(old edition) says that "raa" marks a DEFINITE direct object and is very seldom used after
the indefinite marker i.
For example: It gives ketabi khandam = I read a book.
But, my other source, easy persian.com, uses "raa" after any direct object and writes the above sentence as ketabi raa khandam.
Please tell me which is the correct rule to follow!
Khodaa Haafez,
Ray Steiner

Paul8 Wednesday 28th of September 2005 05:12:58 AM
- I would consider the book as the guide for the formal language and easypersian.com as a guide more for colloquialism even though it tries to be as formal as possible. I suggest using the format under the Teach Yourself book. I have it too and I haven't found any problems in it yet, except for the fact that some exercises require you to translate words that aren't anywhere in the book except the answer guide.

daristani Wednesday 05th of October 2005 07:19:35 PM
Both are correct - Both are correct, with the meanings being different:

'ketab-ra khandam' means "I read the book", while 'ketabi-ra khandam' means "I read a certain book". (In other words, it was a definite book, but is not further identified in the sentence.)

The book "Persian Grammar" by John Mace gives an example:

Mikhahand khane bekharand = They want to buy a house (as yet unknown).

Mikhahand khane-ra bekharand = They want to buy the house (one known to all).

Mikhahand khane-i-ra bekharand = They want to buy a (certain) house (one known to them).

I hope this helps.

Paul8 Sunday 09th of October 2005 10:43:08 AM
- I have done some searching and found your answer. The postposition ra is the "definite direct object" marker. This means that it will only follow the direct object if it is definite (in English this would mean using 'the', while indefinite means using 'a' or 'some'). Using the indefinite marker -i with the definite direct object marker means that the object being spoken about is a specific object and that there is one (or if -ha is used several).

futhey Thursday 06th of July 2006 09:55:24 AM
Also - Also ra cannot be used with intransitive verbs.

Paul8 Saturday 08th of July 2006 12:45:24 PM
- thats because intransitive verbs dont have direct objects to place a ra after

Phrasebase Archive
	steiner1745	Tuesday 27th of September 2005 11:45:28 PM
	question about raa-direct object marker - Salaam! I am puzzled about the use of "raa" as a direct object indicator. One of my sources, "Teach yourself Modern Persian" (old edition) says that "raa" marks a DEFINITE direct object and is very seldom used after the indefinite marker i. For example: It gives ketabi khandam = I read a book. But, my other source, easy persian.com, uses "raa" after any direct object and writes the above sentence as ketabi raa khandam. Please tell me which is the correct rule to follow! Khodaa Haafez, Ray Steiner
	Paul8	Wednesday 28th of September 2005 05:12:58 AM
	- I would consider the book as the guide for the formal language and easypersian.com as a guide more for colloquialism even though it tries to be as formal as possible. I suggest using the format under the Teach Yourself book. I have it too and I haven't found any problems in it yet, except for the fact that some exercises require you to translate words that aren't anywhere in the book except the answer guide.
	daristani	Wednesday 05th of October 2005 07:19:35 PM
	Both are correct - Both are correct, with the meanings being different: 'ketab-ra khandam' means "I read the book", while 'ketabi-ra khandam' means "I read a certain book". (In other words, it was a definite book, but is not further identified in the sentence.) The book "Persian Grammar" by John Mace gives an example: Mikhahand khane bekharand = They want to buy a house (as yet unknown). Mikhahand khane-ra bekharand = They want to buy the house (one known to all). Mikhahand khane-i-ra bekharand = They want to buy a (certain) house (one known to them). I hope this helps.
	Paul8	Sunday 09th of October 2005 10:43:08 AM
	- I have done some searching and found your answer. The postposition ra is the "definite direct object" marker. This means that it will only follow the direct object if it is definite (in English this would mean using 'the', while indefinite means using 'a' or 'some'). Using the indefinite marker -i with the definite direct object marker means that the object being spoken about is a specific object and that there is one (or if -ha is used several).
	futhey	Thursday 06th of July 2006 09:55:24 AM
	Also - Also ra cannot be used with intransitive verbs.
	Paul8	Saturday 08th of July 2006 12:45:24 PM
	- thats because intransitive verbs dont have direct objects to place a ra after