Hebrew Question About Hebrew I Want To Know About The Second Person Singular

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RagingPineapples Sunday 02nd of October 2005 05:24:16 AM
Question about Hebrew - I don't know how similar modern Hebrew is to the ancient stuff, but I have a question.

In other languages (such as French, German, Portuguese) there are often at least two forms of 'you' - one is informal, one is formal (like 'tu' and 'vous' in French).

Does this occur in Hebrew?

I just wondered, because Bibles in European languages often seem to switch between the familiar and the formal terms in unusual situations. The book of Daniel, for example, sometimes has Daniel talking to the Babylonian King with the informal 'you'.

There are even occasions where people seem to refer to God himself with the informal!

I wondered if modern/ancient Hebrew can express this difference between formal and informal pronouns. If so, perhaps the use of these features in european translations reflects the use in the base manuscripts, and that would shed a bit more light on the relationships between Bible characters.

Does this make any sense? =S

JLanguage Sunday 16th of October 2005 09:05:35 AM
- The book of Daniel was originally written in Aramaic, not Hebrew. Aramaic is another Semitic language that is very closely related to Hebrew. As far as Biblical Hebrew is concerned, there is only one form for second person singular. Modern Hebrew is the same way.

European languages switch between formal and informal forms according to the situation, so that the form of the verb/pronoun makes sense in that language. I believe that when talking to God, the informal form of second person singular is used, because the aim is to feel close to God, not distanced from Him.

Does that answer your question?

Cheers,
-Jonathan.

RagingPineapples Monday 17th of October 2005 11:24:43 PM
Thanks - Thankyou very much =)

Yeah, I found out after studying Daniel a bit more that it was originally Aramaic.

I was guessing that the informal forms were to show closeness, and it certainly sounds nice when you hear someone praying using it. I just wondered if it was reflected in the original language.

I give Bible talks/discourses sometimes, so it would be a nice point to mention one day if it is.

Phrasebase Archive
	RagingPineapples	Sunday 02nd of October 2005 05:24:16 AM
	Question about Hebrew - I don't know how similar modern Hebrew is to the ancient stuff, but I have a question. In other languages (such as French, German, Portuguese) there are often at least two forms of 'you' - one is informal, one is formal (like 'tu' and 'vous' in French). Does this occur in Hebrew? I just wondered, because Bibles in European languages often seem to switch between the familiar and the formal terms in unusual situations. The book of Daniel, for example, sometimes has Daniel talking to the Babylonian King with the informal 'you'. There are even occasions where people seem to refer to God himself with the informal! I wondered if modern/ancient Hebrew can express this difference between formal and informal pronouns. If so, perhaps the use of these features in european translations reflects the use in the base manuscripts, and that would shed a bit more light on the relationships between Bible characters. Does this make any sense? =S
	JLanguage	Sunday 16th of October 2005 09:05:35 AM
	- The book of Daniel was originally written in Aramaic, not Hebrew. Aramaic is another Semitic language that is very closely related to Hebrew. As far as Biblical Hebrew is concerned, there is only one form for second person singular. Modern Hebrew is the same way. European languages switch between formal and informal forms according to the situation, so that the form of the verb/pronoun makes sense in that language. I believe that when talking to God, the informal form of second person singular is used, because the aim is to feel close to God, not distanced from Him. Does that answer your question? Cheers, -Jonathan.
	RagingPineapples	Monday 17th of October 2005 11:24:43 PM
	Thanks - Thankyou very much =) Yeah, I found out after studying Daniel a bit more that it was originally Aramaic. I was guessing that the informal forms were to show closeness, and it certainly sounds nice when you hear someone praying using it. I just wondered if it was reflected in the original language. I give Bible talks/discourses sometimes, so it would be a nice point to mention one day if it is.