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Goran
Wednesday 28th of September 2005 11:01:54 AM
All you wanted to know about spanish grammar but you were afraid to ask:
In this thread we will answer any questions regarding Spanish grammar, so feel free to ask. However, first you could visit some lessons that were posted here to see if you can find an answer to your problem. There are several of them and more will be added soon. ;)



Caramelicious
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:02:02 AM
What's "queiere" in past tense, sorry if I spelled it wrong, but I don't think that I can say
Yo quieré


Goran
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:06:15 AM
Originally posted by Caramelicious
What's "querer" in past tense, sorry if I spelled it wrong, but I don't think that I can say
Yo quieré

It's "Yo quise"

yo quise
tú quisiste
él, ella quiso

nosotros, nosotras quisimos
vosotros, vosotras quisísteis
ellos, ellas quisieron


jvz8a
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:10:00 AM
Originalmente dicho por Caramelicious
What's "queiere" in past tense, sorry if I spelled it wrong, but I don't think that I can say
Yo quierémmm... ok... let me see if I understand your question. For that I'll try to rephrase it, and answer it:
What's the past tense of "querer"?
Yo quise, tú quisiste, él quiso, nosotros quisimos, vosotros quisisteis, ellos quisieron.
I'm not sure that's the answer to your question. [color=red]The better you question is stated the more probable we answer what you need[/color]. If you think you can only express your doubt in English... then it's ok. The point here is to get right answers to your questions, not right answers to the wrong questions :)


Caramelicious
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:19:44 AM
Sry, :(. Next time I will try harder to get my point across. Iw as trying to figure out how I can say "I wanted", as in the same tense as "Yo hablé", but when I said "Yo quieré" to myself, it sounded funny. So I knew that it wasn't right, so I came to ask how do I say it. I should have made it more clear, I'll try next time.
This is a little off topic, but has anyone read the "Don" book, I forget the rest of the name, but I heard that it's very popular, but very long. I'd like to try to read it in Spanish when I get good enough, I just want to know if anyone has read it.


jvz8a
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:23:51 AM
Originally posted by Caramelicious
...has anyone read the "Don" book, I forget the rest of the name, but I heard that it's very popular, but very long.lol aaron... :) that's like asking "Hey have you read the "Mr... something"? It's apopular one!" Maybe Goran gets what book is that. Don doesn't say anything to me right now.


Caramelicious
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:28:15 AM
MDRRRRRRRRRRR! Sry!
"Don ________ de la M____"
:S
That is bizarly all that I remember
but, we can get back to gramamr now...


Goran
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:29:01 AM
¿Don Quijote de la Mancha? :)


jvz8a
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:31:00 AM
lol Goran está en todo :D sí, no puede ser otro. Y... Aaron... va a ser mucho más difícil que Cien años de soledad.


Caramelicious
Saturday 08th of October 2005 10:31:29 AM
OMG!
Sabe español y la litt. Miracle!
:D
Gracias!
Si, este es el libro!

I will read it much much much much much later
but I want to read it before I am 18.
:D


Caramelicious
Monday 17th of October 2005 12:46:50 AM
A Few Questions...: I am looking at the Intermediate Game where you have to identify the tense and put the phrase in the remaining tenses and I have a few questions.

The Original Phrase:
Ayer estuvimos en casa de mi mamá porque fue su cumpleaños.

Mis Preguntas:
1. From the Préterito Perfecto -
Hoy hemos estado en casa de mi mamá porque ha sido su cumpleaños.
What does "ha sido" mean?

2. From the Presente de indicativo -
Hoy estamos en casa de mi mamá porque es su cumpleaños.
What makes this the "Presente de indicativo"? Is this not Present Tense?
Please ignore this question if "Presente de indicativo" is the present tense, hehehe

3. From the Futuro Imperfecto
Mañana estaremos en casa de mi mamá porque será su cumpleaños.
Is "será" irregular?

Thank You


Goran
Monday 17th of October 2005 01:54:36 AM
Aaron pregunta
1. From the Préterito Perfecto -
Hoy hemos estado en casa de mi mamá porque ha sido su cumpleaños.
What does "ha sido" mean?


"Ha sido" means " > "It has been". It's presente perfect of the verb SER > SIDO (present perfect)

La segunda pregunta de Aaron es
2. From the Presente de indicativo -
Hoy estamos en casa de mi mamá porque es su cumpleaños.
What makes this the "Presente de indicativo"? Is this not Present Tense?
Please ignore this question if "Presente de indicativo" is the present tense, hehehe


There are two present tenses in Spanish:
Presente indicativo y Presente Subjuntivo

In this case it's the first one


Y su tercera pregunta es
3. From the Futuro Imperfecto
Mañana estaremos en casa de mi mamá porque será su cumpleaños.
Is "será" irregular?


No, it has a regular future tense.

It's formed adding É, ÁS, Á, EMOS, ÉIS, ÁN according to the personal pronoun to the infinitive form when a verb has a regular future tense.

yo > É
tú > ÁS
el, ella > Á

nosotsos, nosotras EMOS
vosotros, vosotras ÉIS
ellos, ellan ÁN

ejemplos:

yo comeré
tú comerás
el, ella comerá

nosotros comeremos
vosotros comeréis
ellos, ellas comerán


Caramelicious
Monday 17th of October 2005 04:53:01 AM
Where does the "Ha" come from in the Present Perfect?




Hoy hemos estado en casa de mi mamá porque ha sido su cumpleaños.

Does this mean:
- Today we have been in my mother's house because it has been her birthday?

Sorry, I only know the tenses by their French names and meanings, I don't even know them in English. :S


jvz8a
Monday 17th of October 2005 05:03:14 AM
It comes from verb haber, which works as an auxiliary verb (mmm... you can think of it as to have in sentesnces like I have been here before.)
Conjugación del verbo haber:
yo he
tú has
él ha
nosotros hemos
vosotros habéis
ellos han

EDIT after Aaron's edit: Yes, that's right.

LOL Aaron... don't edit it that fast! :p


Caramelicious
Monday 17th of October 2005 05:05:10 AM
Hoy hemos estado en casa de mi mamá porque ha sido su cumpleaños.

Does this mean:
- Today we have been in my mother's house because it has been her birthday?

Sorry, I only know the tenses by their French names and meanings, I don't even know them in English. :S




And in the future tense, because you are adding to the infinitive, does this mean that there are no irregulars in this tense?



I am going to try to translate the rest

1. Ayer estuvimos en casa de mi mamá parque fue su cumpleaños.
- Yesterday we were in my mothers house because it was her birthday.
(Is this the Imperfect Tense?)

2. Hoy estamos en casa de mi mamá porque es su cumpleaños.
- Today we are in my mother's house because it is her birthday.

3. Mañana estaremos en casa de mi mamá porque será su cumpleaños.
- Tomorrow we will be in my mother's house because it will be her birthday.


Goran
Monday 17th of October 2005 05:50:02 AM
Originalmente dicho por Aaron
Does this mean:
- Today we have been in my mother's house because it has been her birthday?


Yes, that's correct.

In South America this tense is not used as much as in Spain.



Aaron pregunta
And in the future tense, because you are adding to the infinitive, does this mean that there are no irregulars in this tense?


A verb can be regular in one tense, but it can be irregular in another one.

Some verbs are regular or irregular in Future Tense:

Some regular ones: You form it just adding é, ás, á, é, emos, éis, án to the infinitive

comer, beber, trabajar, mirar, ver...
comeré, comerás, comerá, comeremos, comeréis, comerán
beberé...
trabajaré...
miraré...
veré...

Some irregular verbs in Future Tense

poner > pondré, pondrás, pondrá, pondrémos, pondrés, pondrán (and no poneré, ponerás...)

hacer > haré, harás, hará, haremos, haréis, harán

saber > sabré, sabrás, sabrá, sabremos, sabréis, sabrán




Dicho por Aaron
I am going to try to translate the rest

1. Ayer estuvimos en casa de mi mamá parque fue su cumpleaños.
- Yesterday we were in my mothers house because it was her birthday.
(Is this the Imperfect Tense?)


No it is not. It's "Pretérito perfecto indefinido"

examples:

Yo he trabajado (Pretérito perfecto indefinido> I have worked

Yo trabajé (Pretérito perfecto definido) > I worked

Yo trabajaba (Pretérito imperfecto) > I worked or I was working


Caramelicious
Monday 17th of October 2005 05:57:40 AM
I hope that I am not asking too many questions.
I don't know the tenses in English, only french. So I am trying to understand. :S
Hopefully Rion will see these posts and come and help me lol.

Yo trabajé (Pretérito perfecto definido) > I worked

Yo trabajaba (Pretérito imperfecto) > I worked

How do you know which one to use?
I see the word "imperfecto", but I don't know if this is the same thing as the French "L'imparfait". :S If so, is it not "I was working"?. But if not, how do I know when to use the Pretérito perfecto definido and when to use the Pretérito imperfecto.

I am trying to get enough notes to study this stuff this week when I have free time in school. ;)


Goran
Monday 17th of October 2005 06:22:40 AM
Originally posted by Caramelicious
I hope that I am not asking too many questions.
I don't know the tenses in English, only french. So I am trying to understand. :S
Hopefully Rion will see these posts and come and help me lol.

Yo trabajé (Pretérito perfecto definido) > I worked

Yo trabajaba (Pretérito imperfecto) > I worked

How do you know which one to use?
I see the word "imperfecto", but I don't know if this is the same thing as the French "L'imparfait". :S If so, is it not "I was working"?. But if not, how do I know when to use the Pretérito perfecto definido and when to use the Pretérito imperfecto.

I am trying to get enough notes to study this stuff this week when I have free time in school. ;)

Here I've found a good explanation on the web that compares those past tenses:

Cuando era un niño fui a Disneyland.

Since the second verb in this sentence is the preterite, it refers to an action that took place at a specific time. Therefore, in English, it would be said in the context of a particular time, such as in "On our vacation when I was in fifth grade I went to Disneyland."

Cuando era un niño iba a Disneyland.

Since this is the imperfect, it refers to an action that took place at no particular time. An example of how this might be used in English would be to say "When I lived in Southern California I (often) went to Disneyland."

Frequently, the imperfect form is translated as "used to." The above sentence could be translated as " When I was a child I used to go to Disneyland." The imperfect form also can often be translated in the "past tense of to be + ...ing" form, indicating an action in progress. "When I lived in Disneyland I was going to Disneyland often." Here are some example sentences of the two tenses:

* Ayer (a specific time) llovió (preterite). Yesterday it rained.
* Iba (imperfect, no definite time) a ir a la piscina, pero llovía (imperfect, no definite time, activity in progress). I was going to the pool, but it was raining.
* Cuando yo comía (imperfect, no specific time, action is incomplete), mi amigo me llamó (preterite, an incident that happened and was completed at a specific time) por teléfono. While I was eating, my friend called me on the phone.
* Cuando yo comía (imperfect, no specific time, action isn't completed), yo charlaba (imperfect, no specific end of action) a mis amigos. While I was eating I chatted with my friends.
* Cuando él hablaba (imperfect, no specific time, action in progress), tropezó (preterite, a completed action) con la alfombra. While he was talking he tripped on the carpet.

Another way to distinguish the two verb forms is to think of preterite as definite and the imperfect as indefinite. Still another way of thinking about it is that the imperfect frequently refers to the background in which some other action takes place. Cuando yo era (imperfect, background of the second clause of the sentence) pobre, compré un Volkswagen. When I was poor I bought a Volkswagen. This is why references to past times require the imperfect. Eran las dos. It was 2 o'clock.

Sometimes a verb can be translated using a different word depending on whether the preterite or imperfect is used. Conocí a María, I met María. Conocía a María, I knew Maria. Meeting María took place at a definite time, but knowing her did not.


Caramelicious
Monday 17th of October 2005 06:27:36 AM
THANK YOU!
I UNDERSTAND NOW!
:D
Hopefully if this week isn't a lazy week for me, I will know 4 new tenses by the end of the week. :D
I am taking notes on everything now, and I am going to annoy my spanish speaking friends at school by asking them questions about grammar lol.
I need to know how to say these things now.
I am not good with saying the accented letters.
:S
Thank you for your time Goran and Javier!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
:D


lorelai
Tuesday 18th of October 2005 10:42:57 AM
Bueno, mi pregunta es...mmmm, cómo decirlo..probablemente no la más inteligente :D pero me intriga así que decidí preguntarla de todas maneras. Y me vais a perdonar, porque son las 6 de la mañana :p

Se trata de las dos formas que puede tener cada verbo en el pretérito imperfecto del subjuntivo; entiendo que las ambas son perfectamente acceptables pero...¿el uso de una o de la otra es una cosa de preferencia personal o hay una que se usa más de todo el mundo?


jvz8a
Tuesday 18th of October 2005 10:53:31 AM
Originalmente preguntado por lore
... entiendo que [color=red]las[/color] ambas son perfectamente acceptables pero...¿el uso de una o de [color=red]la[/color] otra es una cosa de preferencia personal o hay una que se usa más [color=blue]por[/color] todo el mundo?mmm... mi pregunta tampoco es la más inteligente, pero voy a intentar decir algo.
Para los que no recuerdan cuál es el pretérito imperfecto del subjuntivo, ahí va el ejemplo con el verbo cantar: cantara o cantase. En México (puedo suponer que al menos en toda América Central) sólo se utiliza cantara.


basketmaker
Thursday 20th of October 2005 12:46:25 AM
Two forms of haber?: Hi there,

In one of the exercizes I was corrected as the following shows.

INCORRECT
En la tercera página, hay un artículo que hablaró de nosotros.

CORRECTED
En la tercera página, habrá un artículo que hablará de nosotros.

I did not understand how hay changed to habrá so a bit of investigating uncovered that there is an impersonal form of haber as well as the helping verb haber?! OH! NO! I didn't even know that "hay" was actually a tense of a verb...

Sorry that I am not even sure about the questions I want to ask about the differences between these to forms... can you explain or is the question too vague.

Thanks, Anette


jvz8a
Thursday 20th of October 2005 12:52:17 AM
The only diference is in tense: hay is in present, and habrá is in future. the sentence you were using was in future ("... un artículo que hablará de nosotros"), and that's why you had to change also hay to habrá. In English you use there is/are vs there will be. This is the case in Spanish.


basketmaker
Thursday 20th of October 2005 01:36:44 AM
hmm... ok, to say "I have to speak" it would be correct to say:
... tengo que hablar or
... hay que hablar

Again, I apologize because I feel that I am not expressing my confusion well :(



jvz8a
Thursday 20th of October 2005 01:40:41 AM
"I have to...[verb]" = "Tengo que...[verbo en infinitivo]"
Hay que hablar is a non-personal form. Like saying something in general.
lol I do apologize if I'm not clear with this...


basketmaker
Thursday 20th of October 2005 02:54:07 AM
:) No! No! You are helping out alot! Along the same lines, though... is hay que hablar the same as hay de hablar...

On a completely different subject. A local radio station uses two phrases in the morning... 1) La mega se tega and 2)vásilon de la mañana... I am guessing that the first translation would be "the biggest hits", but the second one is a mystery. What would you say the phrase is?




jvz8a
Thursday 20th of October 2005 03:01:59 AM
From my point of view, "hay de hablar" is incorrect.
About the radio station, I guess 1 is "La mega se pega"... meaning that La mega (this should be the name of the station, i guess, because mega is only a prefix in Spanish) sticks. The second one, I guess it's "Vacilón de la mañana". vacilón comes from the verb vacilar. In Mexico it has a special meaning: to play jokes on someone. A possible translation for it could be "The morning joke".


JMPH
Saturday 22nd of October 2005 06:58:51 AM
A question on past tense: With verbs like tener, poder, poner and others. I know that you have to change the roots to form the past tense. I think they are conjugated as follows.
Tener in past tense = tuve, tuviste etc.
Poder in past tense = pude, pudiste etc.
Poner in past tense = puse, pusiste etc.

But my question is how do you know which of the irregular verbs are formed like that? And when you know which ones need to be formed by changing the root,how do you know what alteration to make? I have had trouble with this because I see no pattern in forming the past tense of this type of irregular verbs. Can you help with this, please?



jvz8a
Saturday 22nd of October 2005 07:04:56 AM
I have no answer for that. Think it this way:
ring - rang
sing - sang
Do you have a satisfactory explanation why
bring - brought?

We'll post about past tenses. Maybe we can come with a tip for this.


zjave
Tuesday 25th of October 2005 07:14:59 AM
I had a simple question about the present tense. If I wanted to say, "I'm borrowing your car" Would one say:

estoy prestando tu coche
o
yo presto tu coche?

P.S. JMPH: mi maestra de español tiene una canción sobre los irregulares en el preterito. It's to the tune of "Ten Little Indians" (¿Cómo se dice esó en español?)

Di, vi, fui, de,
cupe, supe,
dije, traje, pude, puse
hice, quise, tuve, vine
estuve y anduve

O algo como ese. Olvidé la orden de las palabras. Todos los verbos son en el forma yo. Espero que esto te ayude.



jvz8a
Tuesday 25th of October 2005 10:49:42 AM
Originalmente dicho por zjave
I had a simple question about the present tense. If I wanted to say, "I'm borrowing your car" Would one say:
estoy prestando tu coche
o
yo presto tu coche?I think we need to make something clear first (I need it to understand myself in what's next).
borrow: to receive with the implied or expressed intention of returning the same or an equivalent.
to lend: to give for a temporary use on condition that the same or its equivalent be returned.
borrow = pedir prestado, lend = prestar. As Duffie mentioned in some other thread, in some places (like Central America) they use prestar for borrow. That may lead to confusion. My family does that!(and I hate it, by the way)
I borrow your car = Te pido prestado tu coche.
I'm borrowing your car = Te estoy pidiendo prestado tu coche.
BUT... it really depends on what you are saying and the time frame you want to present. The "continous" form sounds weird to me. Not that it's wrong, simply that it sounds weird.
What was the question? ah, yes... I would look at the context to decide which I'd use.
También dicho por zjave
P.S. JMPH: [color=red]M[/color]i maestra de español tiene una canción sobre los irregulares en el pret[color=red]é[/color]rito. It's to the tune of "Ten Little Indians" (¿Cómo se dice es[color=red]o[/color] en español?)
Di, vi, fui, d[color=red]i[/color],
cupe, supe,
dije, traje, pude, puse
hice, quise, tuve, vine
estuve y anduve

O algo como es[color=red]o[/color]. Olvidé [color=red]el[/color] orden de las palabras. Todos los verbos [color=red]están[/color] en el forma [[color=blue]de[/color]] yo. Espero que esto te ayude.


cesar
Friday 28th of October 2005 02:04:46 AM
In Central America, if you want to express the idea of borrowing something, you need to use "pedir prestado". If some people use "borrow" when meaning "prestar" it is simply used the wrong way. And I understand why jvz8a hates that, hehe.

Now, the two phrases mentioned may give a different idea to the listener, depending on the context.

Tell you what, if I borrow your car I can get back earlier.
Mira, si me llevo (te pido prestado) tu carro puedo volver más temprano.

I'm borrowing your car because this is a serious situation.
Te estoy pidiendo prestado tu carro porque esta es una situación seria.


Always remember: the best translations are not necessarily the most accurate when it comes to matching every word, they simply communicate the same exact idea.


Cesar


jvz8a
Friday 28th of October 2005 02:33:42 AM
Originalmente dicho por césar
In Central America, if you want to express the idea of borrowing something, you need to use "pedir prestado". If some people use "borrow" when meaning "prestar" it is simply used the wrong way. And I understand why jvz8a hates that, hehe.Ermmm.. nop. My family is from El Salvador (in Central America), and that's the way to express that there. For our point of view it might be incorrect, but if it's of common use there... well, I can't say that. Anyway, I hate that use.


cesar
Friday 28th of October 2005 02:59:27 AM
Originally posted by jvz8a
Ermmm.. nop. My family is from El Salvador (in Central America), and that's the way to express that there. For our point of view it might be incorrect, but if it's of common use there... well, I can't say that. Anyway, I hate that use.

Interesting, man! Here in Costa Rica we never use the verb the way people from El Salvador do.

So, basically you mean that in El Salvador I can say "¿Puedo prestar esa caja?" and that means that "Estoy pidiendo esa caja y luego la devuelvo"?

Primera vez que escucho de algún grupo aplicar ese verbo de tal forma. :p


César


jvz8a
Friday 28th of October 2005 03:09:07 AM
Sí :( Horrible. Pero así es. Imagino lo que debieron haber pensado los amantes del latín cuando empezó a degenerarse :)


basketmaker
Thursday 03rd of November 2005 01:53:48 AM
Use of estar or hacer with weather expressions: if hace frió means it's cold, and
if hace viento means it's windy, then why is the phrase
hay nubes (it's cloudy) correct and hace nubes is not. How does está nubes (it's cloudy) fit into this.

Thanks for your help!


jvz8a
Thursday 03rd of November 2005 02:01:06 AM
*inventing a possible answer*
You know that hay = there is/are, so hay nubes means there are clouds. It's cloudy would be translated into está nublado (you mean [el cielo] está nublado). Does this help? :s
[mmm... the word is fr[color=blue]ío[/color] ;)]


basketmaker
Thursday 03rd of November 2005 04:27:53 AM
lol... those accent marks get me everytime :)

Yes, your answer makes sense to me... thanks.


Caramelicious
Saturday 12th of November 2005 10:35:49 AM
In the Pimsleur Spanish, it says that most LAtin American Countries say "Castillano" or something like that instead of "Español"?
Is this true?
That was the first time that I had ever heard that word, before I always just used "Español".


jvz8a
Saturday 12th of November 2005 12:03:02 PM
The word is castellano. The English word is Castilian. This is a noun and adjective that refers to Castile, which is a region in Spain. In this region our language was born.
Read [url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Names_given_to_the_Spanish_language]this article.

No, I have never said I speak Castilian. I speak Spanish. At least Mexicans claim to speak Spanish. As far as I know, it's the same in Central America.
You just stick to the word español (languages names are always in lowercase letters in Spanish).


basketmaker
Tuesday 15th of November 2005 12:57:18 PM
I still get confused as to when to use hacer or estar when refering to weather or weather conditions. In another thread I was translating the phrase:
It was a rainy day at the zoo.
My first choice was to say:
Fue un día lluvioso en el zoo. I thought "fue" because it was past tense and complete. My translater suggested "hacía". Then I changed the phrase to "It was a rainy afternoon". The translater answered with the verb "era" (past, incomplete).

To me afternoon and day seemed the same, so why is "era" correct when using afternoon... "hacía" correct when using day and "fue" incorrect.




Goran
Wednesday 16th of November 2005 05:27:46 PM
Originally posted by basketmaker
I still get confused as to when to use hacer or estar when refering to weather or weather conditions. In another thread I was translating the phrase:
It was a rainy day at the zoo.
My first choice was to say:
Fue un día lluvioso en el zoo. I thought "fue" because it was past tense and complete. My translater suggested "hacía". Then I changed the phrase to "It was a rainy afternoon". The translater answered with the verb "era" (past, incomplete).

To me afternoon and day seemed the same, so why is "era" correct when using afternoon... "hacía" correct when using day and "fue" incorrect.

First of all don't believe to those translaters. They can never replace a person. :)

When you say:

It was a rainy day at the zoo.

You can translate is as:

Fue un día lluvioso en el zoo.

or

Era un día lluvioso en el zoo.

In these examples you are referring to this DAY in general. How was this day in general? Bad, good, boring, rainy, sunny...

On the other hand if you say:

Hacía un día lluvioso en el zoo or Hizo un día lluvioso en el zoo you are referring to the weather conditions of this day. Rainy, windy, snowy, cloudy, good, bad...

So in some examples you can use both "HACER" and "SER" but in other you cannot.

Maybe Javi can explain it better. :)



jvz8a
Wednesday 16th of November 2005 05:59:18 PM
Originalmente dicho por Goran
Maybe Javi can explain it better.lol No :D But I can do something: Add more confusion!:p
Fue, era, hacía... mmm... you can use with some of those estaba: Estaba nublado, estaba soleado, estaba lloviendo. But these ones seem to be only the equivalente for "It was... (raining/cloudy/sunny/etc.)".
I liked your reasoning, Anette, about completness/incompleteness. When to use each? It depends on the things you want to say:
"It was a rainy day at the zoo and we were..."
Stop for a while a think about it again. Complete or incomplete (I'm talking about the was)? If the sentence was only "It was a rainy day.", you'll have to choose the one that fits what you want to express, to choose between fue and era.
Hacía and hizo are more restricted. "Hacía calor", "Hizo mucho frío".
[By the way, if you answered incomplete you answered right :)]
I said I'd add more confusion... and I think I succeded :D
[Thinking about that last entence (with so many I's in it) I'd prefer the Spanish version, where I don't need to use the pronoun yo]< [Now... THAT was a random comment!:p]


Hayley
Sunday 27th of November 2005 06:29:04 AM
una pregunta...: Hola a todos. Estoy estudiando para mi exámen de español, y no estoy segura de un tiempo..
I have been studying all of the tenses and came across the Pluperfect and the Past Perfect. Could you please explain the difference between these two?
My grammar book defines the Pluperfect as 'used to express an action in the past that was completed before another one was started' and the Past Perfect as 'used to indicate a past action that has occurred before another past action'. Now to me that sounds quite similar...what is the difference between saying:
Cuando llegó ya te habías ido and
Cuando llegó ya te hubiste ido ??
I'm very confused lol. Please help me! My test is in a couple of days...


jvz8a
Sunday 27th of November 2005 07:09:56 AM
Originalmente dicho por Hayley
Estoy estudiando para mi ex[color=red]a[/color]men de español, y no estoy segura de un tiempo.... *sigh*
lol I think I'm starting to hate those tenses as much as all of you do :p
I'll try to do my best to not confuse you. I'm sorry if I fail, as always.


PASTbc-aPRESENTFUTURE


That line represents time, and a, b and c represent three moments in time.
For the pluperfect, you express a previous action respect to a past action. Example: Cuando llegaste ya había llovido. Cuando llegaste is point a, and ya había llovido is point b. Both actions are completed (by this, I mean they were ended).
For the pretérito anterior (whatyou call "past perfect"), what you express happened right before some other action in the past. For example: Cuando hubo amanecido, salí. Here, cuando hubo amanecido is point c, and salí is point a.
I think (I said "I THINK") that the difference is in proximity of those two events.
Why am I not sure? The second tense is seldom used. In speaking nobody talks like that (at least here). To express that idea, we use the pretérito plucuamperfecto and/or the pretérito indefinido.
I don't think this helps much. But I do hope this doesn't confuse you more... :s


jajamensan
Tuesday 06th of December 2005 05:49:43 AM
quick grammar question!

"Viajemos (??) Bratislava"

what word do i put in the middle? "a"? "por"?


lyddi
Saturday 10th of December 2005 09:16:38 PM
What is the difference between ADJETIVOS DEMOSTRATIVOS y PRONOMBRES DEMOSTRATIVOS?
I just cannot make it. :(
Gracias.



jvz8a
Saturday 10th of December 2005 09:40:05 PM
Originalmente dicho por jajamensan
Viajemos a Bratislava.

An adjective is a word that you use to describe something:
La camisa nueva, sucia, grande.
If you ask how is the shirt, you'll get only adjectives as an answer: new, dirty, big.
The demonstrative adjectives are those you use to delimit something. mmm.. not a nice explanation... they are: that, this, those, etc. In their adjective character, they most be near a noun: Esta casa es grande. Esa niña es mi hija.

A pronoun is a word you use to substitute a noun. the most widely know pronouns are PERSONAL pronouns (yo, tú, él, etc.). The demonstrative pronouns are closely related to the demonstrative adjectives. As with a pronoun we replace a noun, demonstrative pronouns WON'T work with nouns. For example: This is my wife. Ésta es mi esposa.
Now compare how demonstrative adjectives and demonstrative pronouns are different:
Esta niña es mi hija. Esta mujer es mi esposa.
Ésta es mi hija. Ésta es mi esposa.
In the first two sentences you find demonstrative adjectives (they NEED to be related to their noun). The second two are demonstrative pronouns (they SUBSTITUTE a noun).


Eli
Tuesday 20th of December 2005 10:44:54 PM
Tengo una pergunta:
Sé que se puede decir así:
"Iría a España si tuviera dinero". Mi pregunta es si se puede decir "Iría a España si hubiera tenido dinero".

Lo mismo pasa con "Habría ido a España si hubiera tenido dinero".Eso es correcto, pero si cambio a "Habría ido a España si tuviera dinero", no sé.

¿Alguien me puede ayudar, porfavor?

P.S: ¡¡He crusado 100 postes!!


Goran
Wednesday 21st of December 2005 01:23:32 AM
Originally posted by lekker


Tengo una pergunta:
Sé que se puede decir así:
"Iría a España si tuviera dinero". Mi pregunta es si se puede decir "Iría a España si hubiera tenido dinero".

Lo mismo pasa con "Habría ido a España si hubiera tenido dinero".Eso es correcto, pero si cambio a "Habría ido a España si tuviera dinero", no sé.

¿Alguien me puede ayudar, porfavor?

P.S: ¡¡He superado/alcanzado 100 postes!!

Hola Lekker. Yo cuando estudiaba español mis profesores me decían que el tercer condicional podía acabar de tres maneras. Te lo explicaré más abajo. Vamos por partes. :D


Eso es correcto, pero si cambio a "Habría ido a España si tuviera dinero

Te pongo los tres condicionales para que veas la diferencia.


1.- Si tengo dinero, viajaré a España. (La acción es probable. Yo no sé si tendré el dinero o no > existe la probabilidad de que vayas.)

En inglés sería: If I have money, I will go to Spain.



2.- Si tuviera/tuviese dinero, iría a España. (Aquí la situación es menos probable) y en inglés sería:

If I had money, I would go to Spain.


Algo imposible

3. Este tercer condicional puede acabar de tres maneras tal como te lo dije más arriba.

I- Si hubiera/hubiese tenido dinero, viajaría a España.
II-Si hubiera/hubiese tenido dinero, hubiera/hubiese viajado a España.
III-Si hubiera/hubiese tenido dinero, habría viajado a España.


Si se lo preguntas a un nativo te diría que sólo se usa una de las opciones, posiblemente la tercera más que las dos primeras, pero según la gramática se pueden usar las tres y todas son correctas.

En inglés correspondería a la frase:

If I had had money, I would have gone to Spain.

Espero que te haya ayudado un poco. ;)




Eli
Wednesday 21st of December 2005 04:53:07 AM
Thanks Goran!
I don't know how you felt it, but my question came exactly from comparing English conditonals to those of Spanish.:)


Caramelicious
Tuesday 27th of December 2005 11:05:53 AM
With Direct objects, how do you know if you should put it before the verb, or attach it to the end of the verb?

Necesito hacerlo
o
Necesito lo hacer

(Just examples that I thought up)



fpicinaka
Tuesday 27th of December 2005 08:33:47 PM
el verbo cobrar: Hello!
My question is about the verb 'cobrar'.
This questions derives from the fact that in Portuguese the verb 'cobrar' has the meaning of 'to charge someone something he owes you' and in Spanish one of the meanings is 'to receive' and I think this is the meaning that is making me confuse.
I was reading in the dictionary this sentence:
"Le he cobrado cariño a ese lugar."
I'd like someone to translate this to me please.
"Le" refers to what words? "a ese lugar" or to someone not in the sentence?
I also saw this verb in the dictionary of La Real Academia Española and it has this definition:
3. tr Tomar o sentir ciertos afectos o movimientos del ánimo. Ejemplos: Cobrar cariño a Juan, afición a las letras. Cobrar espíritu, valor.
I'd appreciate if someone could translate these examples too.
Muchas gracias.



Goran
Wednesday 28th of December 2005 01:23:38 AM
Originally posted by Caramelicious


With Direct objects, how do you know if you should put it before the verb, or attach it to the end of the verb?

Necesito hacerlo
o
Necesito lo hacer

(Just examples that I thought up)


You can either say...

Necesito hacerlo.

or

Lo necesito hacer.

You can put it after a verb only when the verb is in infinitive form or continuous form.

Examples:

I'm buying it = Estoy comprándolo. or Lo estoy comprando.

I want to buy it. = Quiero comprarlo. or Lo quiero comprar.



gabyvc
Saturday 21st of January 2006 01:36:31 AM
Originally posted by basketmaker


if hace frió means it's cold, and
if hace viento means it's windy, then why is the phrase
hay nubes (it's cloudy) correct and hace nubes is not. How does está nubes (it's cloudy) fit into this.

Thanks for your help!

in Argentina we dont say "hace viento" but "hay viento"(its windy)...


Reddie
Tuesday 31st of January 2006 07:53:57 PM
have just found this sentense:
Si le gusta o no, eso no te lo puedo decir.
I guess the translation should be smth like:
Whether he likes it or not, I can´t tell it to you.
although it sounds pretty strange:).
but what confuses me more is that eso and lo in the second part of the sentense. What for do we need all of this???


jvz8a
Tuesday 31st of January 2006 09:05:22 PM
Originalment dicho por Reddie
What for do we need all of this???:O :D lol I guess the only answer I can give you is... to make it sound as if it were Spanish :p
If you omit the eso, it sounds... mmm.. not wrong, no. But maybe it'd be easier for you if you don't read it, but listen to it. Unfortumately I cannot record anything for the moment (something happened to my mic:( maybe too many bad recordings recently) I'll try to explain with words: Si le gusta o no, eso no te lo puedo decir. That's how I'd be saying it. Stressing eso.
mmm.. I'm repeating out loud both sentences (with and without eso). With it: "I can tell you many things about him, but not (because I don't know it, I'm not allowed or I don't want) that specific piece of information." Without it: "I have no idea / I don't really care."
Of course, that's the way it sounds to me. I'd be paying attention not only to the words, but also to voice intonation. The more you want to emphasize something, the more redundat the sentence will be. (I think so :S)


Reddie
Wednesday 01st of February 2006 05:14:08 PM
gracias, Javi:)
I guess it´s smth about feeling the language but it´s too early for me :(((( ahh, necesito a ir a hispanohablante país....:)


Caramelicious
Monday 06th of February 2006 08:20:40 AM
Ahora tengo una pregunta :D

Yo miraba "Destinos" de este site: http://www.learner.org/resources/series75.html

La señora es en buenos aires argentina, elle hablaba con un señor de argentina y el señor dicho "Si, lo conozco" o algo tanto este, pero el no dicho "conozco" tanto le he entiendo. El señor dicho conozco tanto "ConoKo", o pienso. Es normal? O tal vez no he entiendo correctemente.
Gracias
:D


basketmaker
Monday 06th of February 2006 09:38:37 AM
Hi there Caramlicious,

I have heard this pronunciation also, as well as, the "s" sound being dropped in some words, such as, está (etá)... esposo (eposo) and others with an "st"... I can't say that I have an answer for your question or mine... only that I know that I "mush" some words together, too and that is probably the same thing...

Can't wait to hear from the experts :D


jvz8a
Monday 06th of February 2006 09:55:07 AM
*also waiting for an expert* :D
In some places you'll listen they drop some s like those. To make a comparision, I think it's like some people pronounce you, in English: as ya.
To say something more, Chileans use to drop fianl s, so in plurals you may listen them saying esos niños que está allá. Of course, my recommendation is not to try to do this.

[ *not correcting Aaron text on purpose* ]

EDIT: After aaron's post below this one.
lol I'm lazy now, Aaron, that why I didn't try :D It's understandable (to me), but it needs corrections :p


Caramelicious
Monday 06th of February 2006 10:48:38 AM
Thank you Javier.
For my text you may correct all that you like. :D
I know that it has to be horrible.


pableras28
Saturday 25th of February 2006 08:42:37 PM
OMG!!! *with no words* O_O

Originally posted by Caramelicious


Ahora tengo una pregunta :D

Yo estaba viendo "Destinos" en este site: http://www.learner.org/resources/series75.html

La señora es en Buenos Aires, Argentina, ella hablaba con un señor de argentina y el señor le dijo "Si, lo conozco" o algo así, pero el no dijo "conozco" por lo que (no "he" with present simple tense) entiendo. El señor dijo "ConoKo", queriendo decir "conozco", o eso pienso. ¿Es normal, o tal vez no lo he escuchado correctamente?
Gracias
:D

Ok, let's try to explain it...In Spanish, as with English, there are variations, in Latin America, as in the south of Spain, many "s" inside the words are not pronounced, as they also pronounce "z" as "s", they treat them the same when they are in an intermediate position inside words.

This is like the difference in saying "warrior" in USA or in UK. There are several little variations, but that would be another thread. :D



Caramelicious
Wednesday 08th of March 2006 08:19:33 AM
I was listening to Pimsleurs Spanish and I have some questions:

1.) The man asked for the translation of "I don't have a car" and the other one said "No tengo coche". Why isn't there an "un" in the sentence?

2.) How do you spell this word, it sounds like "Apropositho" like "By the way".

3.) What is the difference betwwen "en la casa" and "en casa"?

4.) Does "by" always translate as "En"? As in:
- By metro = en metro
- By taxi = en taxi

Thank you!


Axystos
Friday 10th of March 2006 03:09:15 PM
As for point 3; I think it is the same difference as between 'in the house' and 'at home'.


fpicinaka
Friday 14th of April 2006 01:06:09 AM
pretérito pluscuamperfecto: Hola a todos!
I'm having a hard time understanding 'preterito plusucuamperfecto del subjuntivo', mainly when it appears in just one clause.
For example, what is the difference between:
"Nadie te había creído" y "Nadie te hubiera creído"
Can anyone help me understand the meaning between the two?
Thanks in advance.



jvz8a
Friday 14th of April 2006 09:44:40 PM
I'm out of town right now.. but... let's see:
"Nadie te hubiera creído". Here an if clause is implicit. "Nobody would have believed in [what] you [said]... IF..."
The other one is "Nobody had believed in [what] you [said]."


leobloom
Wednesday 03rd of May 2006 04:39:55 PM
Hola! My question is rather tricky, I can't seem to be able to solve it on my own.
Should I use prepositions when there are two infinitive verbs in a sentece, one after the other?

e.g. Dear mister, I''m too good to write or call my fans.

My attempt to translation:
Estimado señor, yo soy demasiado bueno pare escribir o llamar mis aficionados.

the verb escribir would need the preposition a, wouldn't it? I think English language can skip the first to, the one of to writeto. The problem is the ambiguity of the first infinitive, said that way, in this very case, I can get that the two actions (escribir y llamar) are connected and must be translated together, in a different sentence (like: I don't want to write and calling my fans is boring) they would not!I wouldnt be sure of its translation at all, not even into Italian!
I would say:

No quiero escribir y llamar mis aficionados es aburrido.

The Spanish version shows some ambiguity to me, again :(
Please help me getting it if you can! Thanks a real lot!



Goran
Friday 26th of May 2006 05:02:08 AM
Originally posted by leobloom


Hola! My question is rather tricky, I can't seem to be able to solve it on my own.
Should I use prepositions when there are two infinitive verbs in a sentece, one after the other?

e.g. Dear mister, I''m too good to write or call my fans.

My attempt to translation:
Estimado señor, yo soy demasiado bueno pare escribir o llamar mis aficionados.

the verb escribir would need the preposition a, wouldn't it? I think English language can skip the first to, the one of to writeto. The problem is the ambiguity of the first infinitive, said that way, in this very case, I can get that the two actions (escribir y llamar) are connected and must be translated together, in a different sentence (like: I don't want to write and calling my fans is boring) they would not!I wouldnt be sure of its translation at all, not even into Italian!
I would say:

No quiero escribir y llamar mis aficionados es aburrido.

The Spanish version shows some ambiguity to me, again :(
Please help me getting it if you can! Thanks a real lot!


It should be ..."para escribir o llamar a mis aficionados."


And..."No quiero escribir y llamar a mis aficionados. Es aburrido.


Osman
Saturday 08th of July 2006 04:10:39 PM
¡Hola a todos!

i dont know whether this topic can be considered as "grammar" but i need to have some answers. so i wait your replies. Gabyvc told some about the topic but i want to have some more examples.

We say "el agua" but whilst making it plural, we say "las aguas".
el ágila - las ágilas
el arte - las artes
el alma - las almas

Can you give some more examples? I want to note them not to forget afterwards. And another thing is that...

We say: la estrella. that la makes the pronounciation a bit hard. isnt it why we use "el" for agua, alma, ágila...? to make pronounciation easy..

in estrella's case, when we use "la", the pronounciation of the word becomes hard. maybe we dont pronounce "e" of estrella? or a of "la"? i dont know.. Can i get some help por favor?

Gracias por tu ayuda y respuesta. :)


Goran
Saturday 08th of July 2006 05:04:46 PM
Originally posted by Osman


¡Hola a todos!

i dont know whether this topic can be considered as "grammar" but i need to have some answers. so i wait your replies. Gabyvc told some about the topic but i want to have some more examples.

We say "el agua" but whilst making it plural, we say "las aguas".
el ágila - las águilas
el arte - las artes
el alma - las almas

Can you give some more examples? I want to note them not to forget afterwards. And another thing is that...

We say: la estrella. that la makes the pronounciation a bit hard. isnt it why we use "el" for agua, alma, ágila...? to make pronounciation easy..

in estrella's case, when we use "la", the pronounciation of the word becomes hard. maybe we dont pronounce "e" of estrella? or a of "la"? i dont know.. Can i get some help por favor?

Gracias por tu ayuda y respuesta. :)

Hi Osman, :)

el agua, el alma, el hada, el ala, el asa, etc are feminine words but as the stress falls on the first A it's a bit hard to pronounce double A they take a masculine article in singular but that doesn't mean they are masculine words in singular.

In plural it is

el agua > las aguas
el hada > las hadas
el ala > las alas
el asa > las asas

etc

In other words starting with an A where this A is not stressed then those words go with LA article:

la avispa, la ansiedad, la amígdala, la angustia, la harina, etc

Regarding your other question about "la estrella" example there is no that problem because it's la estrella There is no double A here, so no need to change its article.

Do you understand it now? ;)


Osman
Saturday 08th of July 2006 05:10:08 PM
Ah muy bien!

I understood it! Thank you very much Goran!

keep up the work here around, we may come across again :)


Tiger
Tuesday 25th of July 2006 11:03:23 PM
What is usually done to a verb (conjugations wise)? I am trying to learn some Spanish.


jvz8a
Monday 31st of July 2006 11:06:31 AM
Very weird question :S
I think you will get answers to real doubts. That sounds as simple curiosity. And the answer may take us like a while to type... It'd be better if you have something you need to know.


b2k1605
Friday 24th of November 2006 03:02:52 AM
?: how have you been? in spanish???


jvz8a
Friday 24th of November 2006 04:20:42 AM
Are you like.. asking how to say that in Spanish?
It'd be ¿Cómo has estado?
If that was not your question, please be clear.


b2k1605
Friday 24th of November 2006 02:27:39 PM
gracias that's what i want to know. thank you so much hope to help me with some other's


n8starr
Monday 04th of December 2006 12:26:43 PM
Dont know if this has already been answered or if the person still gets on here but in the subtitle you wouldnt use "quisiste" as it has a different meaning in the preterite "you refused" The way to say "I wanted, you wanted, etc..." is by using the imperfect. "Todo que querías saber sobre la gramática española pero no te atreviste a preguntar"


jvz8a
Monday 04th of December 2006 10:16:45 PM
Sorry to say you are wrong but... you are wrong.
I didn't get the "you refused" part. It made no sense to me.
No... to correct what you said: Todo lo que siempre...
Here it is correctly used: Todo lo que siempre quisiste....


WickedArg
Wednesday 06th of December 2006 03:57:32 AM
I would have said "Todo lo que querías saber.."
To say "siempre quisiste" it would have to be "All you always wanted to.."
Or 'All you have always wanted to know' - "Todo lo que siempre has querido saber."


jvz8a
Thursday 07th of December 2006 05:00:11 AM
Yes, you are right.
But the spanish one is not wrong. Todo lo que siempre quisiste... is good there. It is the English one what should be changed. To something like All you EVER wanted to know...
I wouldn't change the Spanish one.
The problem here is that the English sentence is a translation of the Spanish one and not the other way.


WickedArg
Thursday 07th of December 2006 08:13:30 AM
Originally posted by jvz8a
The problem here is that the English sentence is a translation of the Spanish one and not the other way.
Yes, I guess there's the problem


n8starr
Friday 15th of December 2006 11:55:00 AM
Sorry to just jump in and start correcting, i have taken 6 total years of Spanish (4 high school and 2 college) I am also studying to be a translator of spanish as well as a couple other languages, amd I was always told to use the imperfect of querer to express "wanted" and that querer has a different meaning in the preterite of "refused", like "I refused to do something", which is why i brought that up. I had been corrected many times by my teachers about this, but if it's acceptable to use among natives then I am ok with that, let me know your thoughts on this.

There's a whole section in one of my books that deals with this, also gives another example of saber in the preterite meaning "found out".


jvz8a
Friday 15th of December 2006 12:39:49 PM
Maybe it is only punctuation but...
... and that querer has a different meaning in the preterite of "refused", like "I refused to do something"...
Can you explain that? Maybe examples? It is the second time you mention it... and it is the second time I don't know what you are talking about. Or... maybe it is only slow me who doesn't get it.
About the other thing... you are... kinda right. But... it was not a translation from English to Spanish. It was from Spanish to English. So... the one to be corrected is the English one and not the Spanish one.


n8starr
Sunday 31st of December 2006 10:28:55 AM
Thanks for clearing up the wording for me on that, regarding the different meaning in the preterite, i will scan and post the page in my college textbook that explains that and a couple other "different meaning in the preterite" verbs...


nena77
Tuesday 06th of February 2007 04:11:20 AM
Hello
Just a quick question: Does the verb "pensar" mean "to think"? And is it conjugated as all the verbs ending in -ar?
[penso, pensas, pensa, pensamos, pens'ais, pensan]

Also, if I want to say "name the first three cords you can think of" is the following phrase corect?
"Nombra las tres primeras palabras que tú pensas"

I am mainly asking because someone PM'd me that the word "pensas" does not exist. Could you please clarify that for me?
Obliged
:)


jvz8a
Tuesday 06th of February 2007 08:33:22 AM
The verb pensar is irregular. It gets a diphtongue:
pensar: pienso, piensas, piensa, pensamos, pensáis, piensan
[note that nosotros and vosotros are the only ones following the regular pattern]

I don't know what the others think, but I'd say Nombra las tres primeras palabras que se te ocurran.
But.. using your words, I'd say it sounds a little weird. Maybe if you say Nombra las tres primeras palabras que te vengan a la mente.
Like... I can't feel pensar can fit in there.


nena77
Tuesday 06th of February 2007 03:47:57 PM
Thank you so much
Mainly the trouble lies when I try to directly translate expressions from English or Greek into Spanish. I end up with phrases that make no sense :)

By the way, is there any rule following these irregular verbs, or do I have to learn them by heart? And do they all follow the same pattern when conjugated?

Thank you again, I really appreciate it ;)


jvz8a
Tuesday 06th of February 2007 09:26:09 PM
De nada :)
But it makes sense! Only that we (at least here) never say it that way. Or... I wonder if it makes sense because I read the sentence in English too.
About irregular verbs in present tense, I tried to give an explanation [url=http://www.phrasebase.com/discuss/read.php?TID=9501]*here*, but I am not sure that is the best approach. But take a look at it to know if it can help you a little. If not, then... we'll start thinking of how to make it understandable.


WickedArg
Saturday 10th of February 2007 10:48:09 AM
Originally posted by jvz8a
Nombra las tres primeras palabras que se te ocurran.
Nombra las tres primeras palabras que te vengan a la mente.
I totally agree. That's like I would have said it too.

Regarding 'pensás,' well, I don't mean to confuse someone, but it does exist. That's how we speak in Argentina (perhaps not all Argentina, but at least many kilometres around the La Plata River, including Uruguay)... vos instead of tú, vos hablás, ¿qué hacés?... Things like that.

So the statement "the word 'pensás' does not exist" is not entirely false :)

(now, "pensas" doesn't exist)


DonaFlor
Thursday 01st of March 2007 03:16:34 PM
Please, tell me, why the sentence: 'La persona debajo de mí le gusta mucho el helado' is not right?


jvz8a
Thursday 01st of March 2007 09:01:33 PM
Because the construction should go like this:

1:[preposition a] + 2:[Person who likes the thing] + 3:[reflexive pronoun corresponding to person who likes] + 4:[form of verb gustar (it matches the object liked] + 5:[Object or objects liked] + 6:[some complement (as of time, for example]
1, 2 and 6 are optional. But if you have 2, you must have 1.
In your example:
1: A
2: la persona debajo de mí
3: le
4: gusta mucho (okay... the adverb goes with the verb)
5: el helado.

Why was it not right? Because you were not using the preposition. If you mention the person who likes, you MUST use the preposition.


fpicinaka
Wednesday 07th of March 2007 07:48:08 AM
estar apañado: Hello everyone,

Could anyone tell me the meaning of this expression in Spanish. I'm sure this is a common expression in Spain but I'm not sure what it means.



jvz8a
Thursday 08th of March 2007 02:08:34 PM
I don't know about its use in Spain, but here... mmm.. okay. It sounds as if saying "to be seized". It is slang, and it wouldn't be used exactly like that. It'd be normal (when used) to hear it as "Me apañaron" that "Fui apañado".
From DRAE
apañar.

(De paño).
1. Coger, especialmente con la mano.
2. Recoger, coger con la mano frutos, especialmente del suelo.
3. Tomar algo o apoderarse de ello capciosa e ilícitamente.
4. Acicalar, asear, ataviar.
5. Aderezar o condimentar la comida.
6. Remendar o componer lo que está roto.
7. Poner solución o remedio a un asunto precariamente, con disimulo o por conveniencia.
8. Abrigar, arropar.
9. Encubrir, ocultar o proteger a alguien.
10. Darse maña para hacer algo.


Zachariah
Friday 09th of March 2007 05:20:24 AM
This may or may not have been asked already, but I'll take my chances.

1. Is vosotros really even used anymore? I mean I know it's not used in Latin America, but is it used very much in Spain nowadays?

2. For the "imperfecto de subjuntivo" I'm given two ways of writing it. An more specific example would be for the verb "aprender".
Which of the two would be more likely said: aprendiera o aprendiese? And also, is this tense really used that much?
I was told that a lot of tenses that we learn in Spanish native speakers don't really use. And if both of these verbs are used, in which areas?


jvz8a
Friday 09th of March 2007 06:04:56 AM
From what I know, that pronoun is used by most Spaniards. Even if the pronoun gets implicit in the sentence, the verb form remains. And on TV I hear it all the time when watching TVE, for instance.

About aprendiera vs aprendiese, my first choice would be aprendiera, unless I delibeartely wanted to sound posh :p
About its usage frequency, I am not sure. I'd say it is in use. *thinking*
mmm... "Me pidieron que viniera". I'd say we use it often.
I don't know what you mean by that much, but we definetively use it. In which areas? I don't quiet understand that question :S


WickedArg
Saturday 10th of March 2007 06:19:16 AM
Originally posted by jvz8a


I don't know about its use in Spain, but here... mmm.. okay. It sounds as if saying "to be seized". It is slang, and it wouldn't be used exactly like that. It'd be normal (when used) to hear it as "Me apañaron" that "Fui apañado".
From DRAE
apañar.

(De paño).
1. Coger, especialmente con la mano.
2. Recoger, coger con la mano frutos, especialmente del suelo.
3. Tomar algo o apoderarse de ello capciosa e ilícitamente.
4. Acicalar, asear, ataviar.
5. Aderezar o condimentar la comida.
6. Remendar o componer lo que está roto.
7. Poner solución o remedio a un asunto precariamente, con disimulo o por conveniencia.
8. Abrigar, arropar.
9. Encubrir, ocultar o proteger a alguien.
10. Darse maña para hacer algo.

What about 'estar apañado por la ley'? Like, the law protects you


jvz8a
Saturday 10th of March 2007 09:56:02 AM
Originalmente dicho por WickedArg
What about 'estar apañado por la ley'? Like, the law protects youLOL! Protected?! If a friend of mine tells me "Fui apañado por la ley", I'd think he is in jail :p
Do you use that expresion that way? Porque la forma en que nosotros lo usamos acá es la del número tres, pero.. refiriéndo se a personas. Si hablas de cosas... es exactamente como en 3. Las otras formas yo no las conocía. supongo que tú la usas como en 9.


basketmaker
Wednesday 14th of March 2007 02:14:37 AM
Hi there,

Concerning the question that I previously asked on page 3 of this thread regarding hacer, hay, estar
and the weather, I would like to ask if this would be a fair generality (looking for a "trick" to remember this).

Use hacer when:
I can "feel" (my skin) the weather
ex: I feel cold... hace frío
ex: I feel hot... hace calor

Use hay when:
I can "see" the weather (as opposed to feeling it)
ex: It is cloudy... hay nublado

Use estar when:
The weather causes me to do something.
ex: It is cold so I put on my gloves... Está frío así que me pongo mis guantes.

Thanks :)



jvz8a
Wednesday 14th of March 2007 09:37:11 AM
mmm...
Forget about hay. That sentence should be está nublado.

Let's see if I don't say contradictions to what I've said before.
You can say hace frío, así que me pongo mis guantes. If you use está (as the subject is omited), I feel as if you were talking about on object. Like... a bottle or something. You can use it, but I'd prefer it with hace.
*sigh* :(
Sorry, but I can't think right now :( But it'd be great if you give me more examples to check. I really can't think now :(


basketmaker
Wednesday 14th of March 2007 11:26:01 AM
Javi me ha dicho
If you use está (as the subject is omited), I feel as if you were talking about on object. Like... a bottle or something.

OK! I know what you are illustrating here!

Now for the other examples:
It was a rainy day yesterday, so I didn't go to the zoo...

Hizo un día lluvioso ayer, así que no fui en el zoo.
or:
Fue una día lluvioso ayer, así que no fui en el zoo.
or:
Estuvo una día lluvioso ayer, así que no fui en el zoo.

1. (Hacer) Hizo because it was the "conditions" of the day as in forecast... how the weather felt to me
2. (Ser) Fue because it was an "idea" about the day as if I were telling a story...
3. (Estar) Estuvo because it was what the weather was doing at that moment, making me decide not to go to the zoo.

"yesterday" was the driving force to use the preterite...

~~~~~~~~~~~~~

It was a rainy day, so I didn't go to the zoo.

Hacía una día lluvioso, así que no fui en el zoo.
or:
Era una día lluvioso, así que no fui en el zoo.
or:
Estaba una día lluvioso, así que no fui en el zoo.

Mostly the same reasoning as above, but using the imperfect because "it was A day", just any ol' day...
not yesterday, not Thursday, etc.

Well, it's late and I too can't think. The only rain that is going to be happening around here are tears :( hangs head down in despair
Thanks for helping this stubborn ol' dog...


jvz8a
Wednesday 14th of March 2007 11:56:30 AM
First:
... fui [color=red]al[/color] zoológico.

Options with hizo and fue sound good to me. But I feel an intense need to correct the one with estuvo. Maybe you wanted era there? If that's the case, then numbers two and three are only difference in aspect.

To be honest, the only difference I feel between the one with hizo and the one with fue is the zone. I mean... I'd expect Pablo to use hizo, while I wouldn't doubt in using fue. But as I can't say what's going on inside Pablo's head, maybe he could confirm (or refuse) my assumption.


patycik
Thursday 15th of March 2007 02:20:58 PM
Originally posted by basketmaker


Hi there,

Concerning the question that I previously asked on page 3 of this thread regarding hacer, hay, estar
and the weather, I would like to ask if this would be a fair generality (looking for a "trick" to remember this).

Use hacer when:
I can "feel" (my skin) the weather
ex: I feel cold... hace frío
ex: I feel hot... hace calor

Use hay when:
I can "see" the weather (as opposed to feeling it)
ex: It is cloudy... hay nublado

Use estar when:
The weather causes me to do something.
ex: It is cold so I put on my gloves... Está frío así que me pongo mis guantes.

Thanks :)


nope thats not correct u shudnt use those verbs like dat, look :
if u wana use " hacer" then u shud say
1. hace frio , which in english means " its cold"

the verb " hay" shudnt b use if u wana talk about wheather, if u wana say
" it is cloudy" u should say " esta nublado "

and the verb " estar" shudnt b use like dat in this sentence , if u wana say " its cold so i put on ma gloves " u can use the verb " hacer" as well like this:
" hace frio entonces me pongo mis guantes"

so forget bout all the other verbs n just use " hacer" or "estar"

use "hacer " when


Eli
Wednesday 28th of March 2007 02:32:13 AM
Hello!
Ha pasado mucho tiempo desde que visité este forum.

I have a question about using of imperfecto de subjuntivo and pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo.
I know that if the verb in the main clause is in the imperfecto de indecativo, pretérito, potebcial simple or pluscuamperfecto de indicativo, imperfeto de subjuntivo o pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo is ordinarily used in the dependent clause.

But the question is whether there is any difference in their use.

(!!)^-1 Gracias!!




Reddie
Sunday 06th of May 2007 10:08:07 PM
Hacía ejercicios de español para mi prueba (en 5 dias:( ) y no he entendido el usario de verbos en esta frase:
"Ellos pensaban que no iba a venir y al fin se fueron."

Porque pensar y ir estan en imperfecto pero al fin usan preterite para irse ???

ahhh, español parace ser imposible para me....


jvz8a
Sunday 06th of May 2007 10:24:12 PM
Eli, tu pregunta fue hecha de tal manera que se notó que a todos nos dio flojera intentar contestarla.
A ver.
La nomenclatura es el problema. Si pudieras usar la que uso en la explicación de los tiempos, sería más fácil. O danos ejemplos. No es claro cómo planteaste eso de los tiempos. mira la nomenclatura [url=http://www.phrasebase.com/discuss/read.php?TID=16589]aquí.

Originalmente dicho por Reddie
(en 5 d[color=red]í[/color]as ) y no he entendido el us[color=red]o[/color] de verbos en esta frase

mmm... pensar goes with the idea of at that time. Something else was going on. Maybe that something is that they were waiting... and at the same time, they were thinking that. Both actions going on at the same time.
They were waiting. And this person hadn't arrived yet. It is not a fact yet that he was not arriving. They were expecting him or her to come.
Finally, they left. Completed action.
[color=blue]el[/color] español par[color=blue]e[/color]ce ser imposible para m[color=red]í[/color]...


Eli
Friday 01st of June 2007 06:54:27 AM
Originally posted by jvz8a
Eli, tu pregunta fue hecha de tal manera que se notó que a todos nos dio flojera intentar contestarla.
A ver.
La nomenclatura es el problema. Si pudieras usar la que uso en la explicación de los tiempos, sería más fácil. O danos ejemplos. No es claro cómo planteaste eso de los tiempos. mira la nomenclatura [url=http://www.phrasebase.com/discuss/read.php?TID=16589]aquí.


O.K Thanks! Let me give an example.

Insistí en que María lo hiciera. Aquí pretérito imperfecto de subjuntivo está usado.
Insistí en que María lo hubiera hecho. Aquí usamos pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo.
Lo que quiero saber es cuál es la diferencia entre ambas oraciones.

Gracias de nuevo!



ascle
Tuesday 03rd of June 2008 10:54:04 AM
Eli: as in all spanish conjugation, the difference is in the perfective aspect added by the auxiliary verb HABER

"Insiti en que Maria lo hiciera": whatever you urged Maria to do, it should be done AFTER the time you're talking about

"Insisti en que Maria lo hubiera hecho": whatever you urged Maria to do, it should have been done BEFORE the time you're talking about



Javiers
Monday 02nd of February 2009 03:15:56 AM
Originally posted by Eli
Insistí en que María lo hiciera. Aquí pretérito imperfecto de subjuntivo ES usado.
Insistí en que María lo hubiera hecho. Aquí usamos pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo.
Lo que quiero saber es cuál es la diferencia entre ambas oraciones.


Insistí en que María lo hiciera (o hiciese) -> I insisted on Maria doing it.
Notes: "doing it" (hiciera) is imperfect preterite subjunctive (can't recall the proper name of this tense). What if another tense is used? Well, the meaning will be different if you use indicative:

Insistí en que María lo hizo - I insisted that she did it (she had done it, as it is perfect past, indicative).
Insistí en que María lo había hecho - Same as above.
Insistí en que María lo haga - I insisted on her doing it (haga is present subjunctive, so it refers to her doing it in the present). I don't think this use is fair.

Your the second sentence:
Insistí en que María lo hubiera hecho - I insisted on her having done it. (sorry if the English is incorrect)
Basically, it's the same concept, using compound subjunctive past instead of simple.

So, asking to your question, the difference is that, in the 1st sentence you insisted on her doing it at that time or later, while in the sencond, you insisted on something that should have happened before insisting (she shouldve done it before you insisted).



nuevaoportunidad
Wednesday 12th of August 2009 03:19:07 PM
I need help :): Hallo everybody, I just have started my adventure with spanish and I have few questions :) I will be greatful if somebody can help me :)

How do I saY:
?Gracias, que estas aqui? or ?Gracias, que estes aqui?
?Estoy? or ?soy bien informada?
Hay ańos muy lluviosos or Son ańos muy lluviosos?

:) Thanks :)

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