Spanish Formal Imperative

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Monday 16th of April 2007 02:27:17 AM
Formal Imperative: Would a native Spanish-speaker please verify that there is a form of the imperative called the "formal imperative" i.e. Mandar > Mande, Entender > Entienda etc.

Monday 16th of April 2007 02:32:19 AM
Even though I AM A NATIVE SPANISH SPEAKER, I'll let the others to answer. Pablo, Giovy, Tyrrena, Fiamma, David, Iván, Goran. If I am forgeting someone, please forgive me.
BCS, ask the question THE RIGHT WAY. As they don't know where this comes from, I'll post the link here:

Now, this gentelman says the corrections I made are wrong because he is so good at Spanish, he can't have made those childish mistakes.
So, let's hear what the other natives have to say.

Monday 16th of April 2007 03:56:07 AM
it's spelled gentleman

Monday 16th of April 2007 05:50:23 AM
As far as I know, it's not a "formal imperative", but the educated form of the imperative. That is, when we use the "usted" pronoun.

So, we have:

manda (tú) (informal)
mande (usted) (formal)

entiende (tú) (informal)
entienda (usted) (formal)

It's just about the way of addressing people, not another kind of imperative. I hope I have clarified your doubt. :)

Edit: ok, now I've read the other thread and I think I can explain it.

One thing is "me mande" and another thing is "mándeme".

In imperative we ALWAYS add the pronoun to the ending of the verb, in any person.


When we CANNOT add the pronoun is when we use a subjunctive. We can never say "me mande" if we do not put it in a subjunctive clause, that is, one started by "que".

"Si alguien quiere aprender español, que me mande un mensaje..." has not the same intonation as "if you want to learn Spanish,send me a message...", why? Because in Spanish, the clause "que me mande..." is a conditional subjunctive clause, nothing to do with the imperative form typical in English.

Wednesday 18th of April 2007 04:05:46 AM
Mana has a song called 'Manda una señal'. Lovely song :D

sorry, just wanted to tell! lol! :p

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